or she was sick and did not menstruate three times before he embraced Islam, or she was returned to him through a new marriage. Ibn Abi Shayba narrated in his "Sunan" from Amr ibn Shu'ayb, from his father, from his grandfather, that the Prophet (may God bless him and grant him peace) returned her to Abu al-As with a new marriage. Al-Tirmidhi recorded it (31) and said: I heard Abd ibn Humayd say: I heard Yazid ibn Harun say: The hadith of Ibn Abbas has a better chain of narration, but the practice is based on the hadith of Amr ibn Shu'ayb.
Section: If the separation occurs due to one of them embracing Islam after consummation, she is entitled to the full dowry, because it was confirmed by consummation and therefore cannot be forfeited by anything. If it was a validly named dowry, it is hers, because the marriages of disbelievers are valid and the rules of validity apply to them. If it was prohibited, and she had received it during the state of disbelief, she is entitled to nothing else, as we do not address their past judgments. If she had not received it and it is prohibited, she is entitled to the dowry of her peers, because wine and swine cannot be a dowry for a Muslim woman, nor in the marriage of a Muslim, and their rulings have become the rulings of the Muslims. As for the maintenance during the waiting period, if she is the one who embraced Islam before him, she is entitled to the maintenance of her waiting period, because he is able to maintain the marriage and enjoy her by embracing Islam with her, so she is entitled to maintenance just like one who is revocably divorced. If he is the one who embraced Islam before her, she is not entitled to maintenance from him, because he has no way to maintain the marriage and rectify her status, so she resembles one who is irrevocably divorced, regardless of whether she embraces Islam during her waiting period or does not. If it is said: If she does not embrace Islam, we determine that her marriage was annulled due to the difference in religion, so how can maintenance be obligatory for an irrevocably divorced woman? We say: Because the husband could have rectified the marriage if she had embraced Islam before him (32), in fact, he is obligated to do so, thus she is in the same status as a revocably divorced woman. If it is said: The revocably divorced woman leads to finality due to a cause from him, while this cause is from her? We say: However, it was a strictly required duty upon her, and he could have rectified it, unlike if she had embraced Islam before consummation, for then all of her dowry is forfeited (33) because he was unable to rectify it.
(31) In: The Chapter on What Has Come Regarding Two Polytheist Spouses..., from the Chapters of Marriage. 'Aridat al-Ahwadhi 5/81, 82. It was also recorded by Ibn Majah, in: The Chapter on Two Spouses Where One Embraces Islam Before the Other, from the Book of Marriage. Sunan Ibn Majah 1/647. And Imam Ahmad, in: Al-Musnad 2/208. We did not find it in the Musannaf of Ibn Abi Shayba. (32) Omitted from: The original, M. (33) In B: "forfeited".