the statement of someone attributing it to some of the nations we mentioned, since that which is in the tongues of non-Arabs among all the tongues of nations in it is identical to that which is in it from the tongue of the Arabs.

Since that is so, then clear is the error of whoever claimed that the speaker among the predecessors (Salaf) who said: "In the Qur'an there is something from every tongue," only meant by his saying so that in it there is expression that is not Arabic, nor permissible to attribute to the tongue of the Arabs.

And it is said to whoever rejects what we have said—among those who claim that the words we previously mentioned at the beginning of the chapter and their like are merely speech of nations other than the Arabs that reached the Arabs and so they Arabized it: What is your proof for the correctness of what you said regarding that, from a perspective that must be accepted, when you know who disagreed with you on that and said the opposite of your view? And what is the difference between you and someone who opposes you in that and says: "These words and other similar words are originally Arabic, except that they reached all the other nations, and each nation spoke some of them in their own tongues"—from a perspective that must be accepted?

He will not state anything regarding one of them without being bound to the same regarding the other.

And if he argues in that regarding the statements of the predecessors (Salaf), some of which we have mentioned and their like, he will be demanded