"I have annulled their marriage," then it is a choice of four. If he divorces one of them, it is a choice for her; because divorce only occurs in the case of a wife. If he says: "I have separated from these women," or "I have chosen the separation of these women," and he did not intend divorce by it, it is a choice of the others; because the Prophet (may Allah bless him and grant him peace) said to Ghaylan: "Choose four of them, and separate from the rest of them." This implies that the term "separation" is explicit regarding it, [just as the term "divorce" is explicit regarding it], and likewise in the hadith of Fayruz al-Daylami, who said: "So I went to the one who had been with me for the longest time and separated from her." This position is more specific [to this phrasing]; therefore, it must be designated [by this term] as an annulment. If he intended divorce by it, it is a choice for them rather than others. The Qadi mentioned two views regarding it when it is used without qualification; one of them is that it is a choice of those separated, because the term "separation" is explicit in divorce. The former is what we have mentioned. If he has intercourse with one of them, it is a choice of her, according to the analogy of the school; because it is not permissible except in a rightful union, so it indicates choice, like intercourse with a slave woman sold with a condition of option, and intercourse with a revocably divorced wife (raj'iyyah) is also a choice for her. If he performs ila' (vow of abstinence) from one of them, or zihar (comparing her to the back of his mother), it is not a choice for her; because it is valid toward someone who is not a wife, according to one of the two views, while in the other, it is a choice for her; because its legal ruling does not take effect toward someone who is not a wife.