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المغني لابن قدامة - ت التركي
مجلد 10 · صفحة 49١١٧٧ - مسألة؛ قال: (ولو تزوجها على أن يطلقها فى وقت بعينه، لم ينعقد النكاح)

الترجمة · EN

al-Awza'i. He said: "It is a nikah al-mut'ah (temporary marriage)." The correct view is that there is no harm in it, and his intention does not cause harm. It is not incumbent upon a man to intend to keep his wife, and it suffices that if she pleases him he keeps her, otherwise he divorces her.

1177- Issue; He said: (If he marries her on the condition that he divorces her at a specified time, the marriage is not contracted.)

Meaning, if he marries her on the condition that he divorces her at a specified time, the marriage is not valid, whether it is known or unknown, such as if it is stipulated that he must divorce her if her father or brother arrives. Abu Hanifah said: "The marriage is valid, and the condition is void." This is the more apparent of the two views of al-Shafi'i, as stated in his general books, because the marriage occurred absolutely, and he only imposed a condition upon himself, which does not affect it, just as if he stipulated that he would not marry another woman alongside her or not travel with her. Our view is that this is a condition that prevents the continuation of the marriage, so it resembles nikah al-mut'ah, [and because they both stipulated it with the continuation of the marriage at a specific time, it resembles nikah al-mut'ah], and it differs from what they drew an analogy to, for there it was not stipulated that the marriage be severed.

1178- Issue; He said: (Likewise, if he stipulates that he must make her lawful for a husband who was before him.)

Its general meaning is that the nikah of the muhallil (intervening husband) is forbidden and invalid, according to the general body of scholars; among them are al-Hasan, al-Nakha'i, Qatadah, Malik, al-Layth, al-Thawri, Ibn al-Mubarak, and al-Shafi'i. It is the same whether he says: "I have married you to her until you have intercourse with her," or stipulates that if he makes her lawful [for the first husband] there is no marriage between them, or that if he makes her lawful for the first, he will divorce her. It has been narrated from Abu Hanifah that the marriage is valid, and the condition is void. Al-Shafi'i said regarding the first two scenarios: "It is not valid." Regarding the third, there are two views. Our evidence is what has been narrated from the Prophet (may Allah bless him and grant him peace), that he said: "Allah has cursed the muhallil and the one for whom she is made lawful (muhallal lahu)." Extracted by Abu Dawud and Ibn Majah,

الحواشي

(1) In B: "wa hadha" (and this). (2) Omitted from: A, M. (1) Omitted from: B.

السابقمجلد 10 · صفحة 49التالي
السابق10·49التالي