cannot produce semen, so he does not attain the pleasure of intercourse and thus does not "taste the sweetness." It is possible that Ahmad said this because, in most cases, intercourse does not occur from a castrate, or he is not in a condition where ejaculation is expected; therefore, making the woman lawful through his intercourse does not occur, similar to intercourse without an erection.

Section: Our colleagues stipulated that the intercourse must be lawful. If he has intercourse with her during menstruation, post-natal bleeding, while one or both are in a state of Ihram, or while one of them is observing a obligatory fast, she does not become lawful. This is the opinion of Malik, because it is intercourse that is forbidden due to a right of Allah, the Exalted, and thus lawfulness is not achieved through it, like the intercourse of a female apostate. The apparent meaning of the text supports her becoming lawful, which is His saying, the Exalted: "until she has married another husband." She has indeed married a husband other than him. Also, his (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) statement: "Until you taste his sweetness and he tastes your sweetness." This has been fulfilled. Furthermore, it is intercourse in a valid marriage in the place of intercourse in a complete manner, so it renders her lawful, just like lawful intercourse, and just as if he had intercourse with her when the time for prayer was tight, or he had intercourse with her while she was ill and intercourse was harmful to her. This is the most correct view, if Allah, the Exalted, wills. It is the school of Abu Hanifah and al-Shafi'i. As for the intercourse of a female apostate, it does not render her lawful, regardless of whether he has intercourse with her during the state of both their apostasy, or her apostasy alone, or if an apostate has intercourse with a Muslim woman; because if the apostate does not return to Islam, it becomes clear that the intercourse was outside of a valid marriage, and if he returns to Islam during the waiting period (iddah), the intercourse was in an incomplete marriage because the cause for separation is present in it. Likewise, if one of the two spouses embraces Islam, and the husband has intercourse with her before the other converts, it does not render her lawful for that reason.

Section: If a slave marries her and has intercourse with her, he renders her lawful. This is the opinion of 'Ata', Malik, al-Shafi'i, and the people of reason (Ahl al-Ra'y). We know of no one who differs from them in this. This is because he is included in the general meaning of the text, and his intercourse is like the intercourse of a free man. If a child approaching puberty marries her and has intercourse with her, he renders her lawful according to them, except for Malik and Abu 'Ubayd, for they said: He does not render her lawful. This is also narrated from al-Hasan, because it is intercourse from someone who is not an adult.