sawiq (a type of porridge/gruel). If his staple food is something other than that, from grains such as millet, maize, or rice, there are two views regarding it. The first view is that it does not suffice. This was mentioned by Al-Qadi, because it does not suffice for Zakat al-Fitr. The second view is that it does suffice. This was chosen by Abu al-Khattab, based on the saying of Allah the Almighty: "...from the average of that with which you feed your own families" [Al-Ma'idah: 89], and because the Prophet (peace be upon him) commanded feeding in an absolute sense, without restricting it to any specific kinds of food. Therefore, it must be kept in its absolute sense. Furthermore, he has fed the poor person from his own food, so it suffices him, just as if his food were wheat and he had fed him from it. This is the more evident opinion.

Section: If one is unable to perform manumission, fasting, or feeding, the expiation is waived for him, according to one of the two narrations, evidenced by the fact that when the Prophet (peace be upon him) gave the Bedouin the basket of dates and he informed him of his need for it, saying: "Feed it to your family," he did not command him to perform another expiation. This is the opinion of Al-Awza'i. Al-Zuhri said: Expiation is inevitable, and that was specific to that Bedouin and does not extend to others. The proof for this is that he informed the Prophet (peace be upon him) of his inability before he gave him the basket, yet he did not waive it for him. Moreover, it is an obligatory expiation, so it does not lapse due to inability, like all other expiations. This is a second narration from Ahmad, and it is the analogy of the school of Abu Hanifah, Al-Thawri, and Abu Thawr. From Al-Shafi'i, there are two positions similar to the two in our school. We argue that the aforementioned hadith [is the evidence], and the claim of specification is not heard without evidence. Regarding their statement that he informed the Prophet (peace be upon him) of his inability and he did not waive it: we say, he did indeed waive it for him after that, and this is the final of the two matters from the Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him). It is not valid to draw an analogy to other expiations because it would be a rejection of the textual evidence in favor of analogy, and the text takes precedence. The consideration for inability is at the time of obligation, which is the time of intercourse.

497 - Issue: He said: "And if he has intercourse, and has not yet performed expiation until he has intercourse a second time, then there is one expiation."

In summary, if he has intercourse a second time before performing the expiation for the first, this must either be on the same day or on two different days. If it is on the same day, one expiation suffices him, without disagreement