the authorized person has a debt that exhausts his value and what is in his possession, and we have said that the debt attaches to his person, then he must pay the value of the slave who was emancipated to the creditors, because he is the one who caused their loss through the emancipation. If the owner forbade him from purchasing, the purchase is void, because he possesses the right through permission, which has ceased with the prohibition. If he gave general permission, Abu al-Khattab said: His purchase is valid, because whoever is permitted to be purchased by the master, it is valid for the authorized person to purchase, like a stranger. This is the opinion of Abu Hanifa if he gave him permission for trade but did not hand over any capital to him. The Qadi said: It is not valid, because it involves destruction [of wealth] for the master, as his permission extends to that in which there is a benefit, so destruction does not enter into it. It differs from the Mudaraba agent, because he guarantees the value, so the harm is removed. There are two opinions for al-Shafi'i, like the two opinions [previously mentioned]. If he purchases the wife of the owner of the capital, or the husband of the female owner of the capital, is it valid? There are two opinions on this as well, like the purchasing of someone who becomes emancipated through purchase.
Section: If the Mudarib (agent) purchases someone who would be emancipated upon him, the purchase is valid. If no profit has appeared in the capital, nothing of him is emancipated. If profit has appeared in it, there are two opinions, based on the agent: when does he own the profit? If we say: He owns it upon division, then nothing of him is emancipated, because he did not own it. If we say: He owns it upon its appearance, there are two opinions: First, he is not emancipated, which is the opinion of Abu Bakr, because his ownership was not completed over it, as the profit is a protection for the principal capital, so he is not emancipated for that reason. Second, he is emancipated to the extent of his share of the profit if he is insolvent, and the remainder is appraised against him if he is solvent, because he owned it through his action, so he is emancipated upon him, just as if he had purchased him with his own wealth. This is the opinion of the Qadi and the school of Abu Hanifa's companions, but according to them, he must work to earn his freedom for the remainder if he is insolvent. We have a narration similar to theirs. If he purchased him and no profit appeared, then it appeared after that, and the slave remains in the trade, it is as if the profit were apparent at the time of the purchase. Al-Shafi'i said: If he purchased him after the appearance of the profit, it is not valid, according to one of the two opinions, because it leads to the agent realizing his right before the owner of the capital. We argue that they are partners, so the purchase of each of them of someone who would be emancipated upon him is valid, just like two partners in a partnership of 'Inan (equal capital/limited partnership).
(27) In the original: "ra's". (28) In [B]: "fa-'utaqa". (29) In [A], [B], and [M]: "yunjaz".
على المَأْذُونِ له دَيْنٌ يَسْتَغْرِقُ قِيمَتَه وما في يَدِه، وقُلْنا: يَتَعَلَّقُ الدَّيْنُ بِرَقَبَتِه. فعليه دَفْعُ قِيمَةِ العَبْدِ الذي عَتَقَ إلى الغُرَماءِ؛ لأنَّه الذي أتْلَفَ عليهم بالعَتْقِ. وإن نَهَاهُ عن الشِّرَاءِ، فالشِّرَاءُ باطِلٌ؛ لأنَّه يَمْلِكُه بالإِذْنِ، وقد زَالَ بالنَّهْىِ. وإن أطْلَقَ الإِذْنَ، فقال أبو الخَطَّابِ: يَصِحُّ شِرَاؤُه؛ لأنَّ مَن صَحَّ أن يَشْتَرِيَه السَّيِّدُ، صَحَّ شِرَاءُ المَأْذُونِ له، كالأَجْنَبِىِّ. وهذا قولُ أبى حنيفةَ إذا أَذِنَ له في التِّجَارَةِ ولم يَدْفَعْ إليه مَالًا. وقال القاضي: لا يَصِحُّ؛ لأنَّ فيه إتْلَافًا على السَّيِّدِ، فإنَّ إذْنَه يَتَنَاوَلُ ما فيه حَظٌّ، فلا يَدْخُلُ فيه الإِتْلافُ. وفارَقَ عامِلَ المُضَارَبةِ؛ لأنَّه يَضْمَنُ القِيمَةَ، فيَزُولُ الضَّرَرُ. وللشَّافِعِىِّ قَوْلَانِ، كالوَجْهَيْنِ. وإن اشْتَرَى امْرأَةَ رَبِّ المالِ، أو زَوْجَ رَبَّةِ المالِ، فهل يَصِحُّ؟ على وَجْهَيْنِ أيضًا، كَشِرَاءِ مَن يَعْتِقُ بالشِّرَاءِ.
فصل: وإن اشْتَرَى المُضَارِبُ مَن يَعْتِقُ عليه، صَحَّ الشِّرَاءُ. فإن لم يكُنْ ظَهَرَ في المالِ رِبْحٌ، لم يَعْتِقْ منه شيءٌ، وإن ظَهَرَ فيه رِبْحٌ، ففيه وَجْهَانِ، مَبْنِيَّانِ على العامِلِ متى يَمْلِكُ الرِّبحَ؟ فإن قُلْنا: يَمْلِكُه بالقِسْمَةِ. لم يَعْتِقْ منه شيءٌ؛ لأنَّه ما مَلَكَهُ. وإن قُلْنا: يَمْلِكُه بالظُّهُورِ. ففيه وَجْهانِ؛ أحَدُهما، لا يَعْتِقُ. وهو قولُ أبى بكرٍ؛ لأنَّه لم يَتِمَّ مِلْكُه عليه، لأنَّ الرِّبْحَ وِقَايَةٌ لِرَأْسِ (٢٧) المالِ، فلم يَعْتِقْ لذلك. والثانى، يَعْتِقُ بِقَدْرِ حِصَّتِه من الرِّبْحِ، إن كان مُعْسِرًا، ويُقَوَّمُ عليه بَاقِيه إن كان مُوسِرًا؛ لأنَّه مَلَكَهُ بفِعْلِه، فيَعْتِقُ (٢٨) عليه، كما لو اشْتَراهُ بمالِه. وهذا قولُ القاضي، ومذهبُ أصْحابِ أبى حنيفةَ، لكن عِنْدَهم يسْتَسْعى في بَقِيَّتِه إن كان مُعْسِرًا. ولَنا رِوايَةٌ كقَوْلِهم. وإن اشْتَراهُ ولم يَظْهَرْ رِبْحٌ، ثم ظَهَرَ بعدَ ذلك، والعَبْدُ باقٍ في التِّجَارَةِ، فهو كما لو كان الرِّبْحُ ظَاهِرًا وَقْتَ الشِّرَاءِ. وقال الشّافِعِىُّ: إن اشْتَراهُ بعدَ ظُهُورِ الرِّبْحِ، لم يَصِحَّ، في أحَدِ الوَجْهَيْنِ؛ لأنَّه يُؤَدِّى إلى أن يَتَنَجَّزَ (٢٩) العامِلُ حَقَّهُ قبل رَبِّ المالِ. ولَنا، أنَّهما شَرِيكانِ، فصَحَّ
(٢٧) في الأصل: "رأس".(٢٨) في ب: "فعتق".(٢٩) في أ، ب، م: "ينجز".